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Post by AndaYeerk54 on Sept 16, 2003 19:14:48 GMT -5
*Why* is Count Olaf after the Baudelaires? The Baudelaires have said that it's because Count Olaf's such a terrible person, Count Olaf has mentioned that he wants the Baudelaire fortune, but is there some deeper motive? Perhaps something connected with VFD? Post your ideas here!
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Post by MambaduMal on Sept 16, 2003 19:33:18 GMT -5
Yes, I think that VFD might have something to do with the motivation... I think that the Baudelaire parents were in VFD at one point, and they were on the opposite side as Olaf in the schism (or however you spell it  ). He might be looking for a little bit of revenge for something, maybe a plot that the Baudelaire parents had foiled... Or just to prevent the orphans from growing up like their parents... |
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Post by Misery on Sept 18, 2003 17:51:40 GMT -5
Yeah.. I agree with all of the above.  |
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Post by BSam on Sept 21, 2003 17:48:19 GMT -5
so maybe Olaf is related somehow? i think he is...distantly...but still... how else would become the first guardian... doesn't it actually say that in the first book? of course he could of been lying... |
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). He might be looking for a little bit of revenge for something, maybe a plot that the Baudelaire parents had foiled...
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